Consider the matrix $$M_n=\begin{bmatrix}1&\frac1{2!}&\frac1{3!}&\dotsb&\frac1{n!}\\ \frac1{2!}&\frac1{3!}&\frac1{4!}&\dotsb&\frac1{(n+1)!}\\ \frac1{3!}&\frac1{4!}&\frac1{5!}&\dotsb&\frac1{(n+2)!}\\ \vdots&\vdots&\vdots&\ddots&\vdots\\ \frac1{n!}&\frac1{(n+1)!}&\frac1{(n+2)!}&\dotsb&\frac1{(2n-1)!}\end{bmatrix}$$ In other words, $M=[\frac1{(i+j-1)!}]_{1\le i,j\le n}$. Is there any formula for $\det M_n$?
Now, I know combinatorialists have lots of clever ways of evaluating determinants, so it doesn't seem so impossible to me that there might be a closed form solution to this. This is far from guaranteed, but I've been surprised before.
(By the way, I conjecture that $\det M_n\ne0$ for all $n$, but I don't immediately see a way to prove this.)
Let $M_n'$ be the matrix obtained from $M_n$ by (1) multiplying the $i^{\text{th}}$ row by $(n+i-1)!$ and (2) dividing the $j^{\text{th}}$ column by $(n-j)!$. Then the $(i,j)$ entry of $M_n'$ is $\frac{(n+i-1)!}{(n-j)!(i+j-1)!} = \binom{n+i-1}{j+i-1}$. For example, $$ M_5' = \begin{bmatrix} 5 & 10 & 10 & 5 & 1 \\ 15 & 20 & 15 & 6 & 1 \\ 35 & 35 & 21 & 7 & 1 \\ 70 & 56 & 28 & 8 & 1 \\ 126 & 84 & 36 & 9 & 1 \\ \end{bmatrix}. $$ We see that each entry is the sum of the entry above it, plus the entry above and to its left. Formalizing this in matrix notation gives us the factorization $M_n' = A_n B_n$, where $a_{ij} = \binom{i-1}{j-1}$ and $b_{ij} = \binom{n}{i+j-1}$. For example, $$ M_5' = A_5 B_5 = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 1 & 1 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 1 & 2 & 1 & 0 & 0 \\ 1 & 3 & 3 & 1 & 0 \\ 1 & 4 & 6 & 4 & 1 \\ \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} 5 & 10 & 10 & 5 & 1 \\ 10 & 10 & 5 & 1 & 0 \\ 10 & 5 & 1 & 0 & 0 \\ 5 & 1 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 1 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \\ \end{bmatrix}. $$ To prove that $M_n' = A_n B_n$ for all $n$, we need to check that the $(i,j)^{\text{th}}$ entry is equal to $\sum_{k=1}^n a_{ik} b_{kj}$, which means we must prove that $$\binom{n+i-1}{j+i-1} = \sum_{k=1}^n \binom{i-1}{k-1} \binom{n}{k+j-1}.$$ This is a special case of Vandermonde's identity.
It follows that $\det(M_n') = \det(A_n) \det(B_n)$. Here, $\det(A_n) = 1$, since $A_n$ is a lower triangular matrix. To put $B_n$ in the same form, we'd need to reflect it vertically, which means doing $\lfloor \frac n2\rfloor$ row swaps; therefore $\det(M_n') = \det(B_n) = (-1)^{\lfloor \frac n2\rfloor}$.
To go back to $\det(M_n)$, we need to undo the row operations we did when going from $M_n$ to $M_n'$. We divide the $i^{\text{th}}$ row by $(n+i-1)!$, which multiplies the determinant by $\prod_{i=1}^n \frac1{(n+i-1)!}$. We multiply the $j^{\text{th}}$ column by $(n-j)!$, which multiplies the determinant by $\prod_{j=1}^n (n-j)! = \prod_{i=1}^n (i-1)!$. Therefore $$\det(M_n) = (-1)^{\lfloor \frac n2\rfloor} \prod_{i=1}^n \frac{(i-1)!}{(n+i-1)!}.$$ Since each $\frac{(i-1)!}{(n+i-1)!}$ can be written as $\frac 1i \cdot \frac1{i+1} \cdots \frac1{(i+n-1)} = \prod_{j=1}^n \frac1{i+j-1}$, another handy way to write this expression is $$\det(M_n) = (-1)^{\lfloor \frac n2\rfloor} \prod_{i=1}^n \prod_{j=1}^n \frac1{i+j-1},$$ which makes it clear that $\frac1{\det(M_n)}$ is an integer. In fact, the absolute value $|\frac1{\det(M_n)}|$ is sequence A107254 in the OEIS, which was what originally led me to guess this formula.