Let $X$ be continuously uniformly distributed on $(0, 1)$. Let $\lambda> 0$ and $Y = -\frac{1}{\lambda}\ln (1 - X)$.
Determine the distribution of $Y$. Make a note of the intermediate steps.
That means that we have to calculate the distribution function of $Y$, i.e. $F_Y(y)$, right?
We have the following :
$$\begin{align*}F_Y(y)&=P(Y\leq y)\\&=P\left (-\frac{1}{\lambda}\ln (1 - X)\leq y\right )\\&=P\left (-\ln (1 - X)\leq \lambda y\right )\\&=P\left (\ln (1 - X)\geq -\lambda y\right )\\ & =P\left (1 - X\geq e^{-\lambda y}\right )\\&=P\left ( X\leq 1-e^{-\lambda y}\right )\\&=F_X(1-e^{-\lambda y})\end{align*} $$
Is that correct and complete?
If $X \sim U(0,1)$, then $F_X(x)=x$ for $0 < x \leq 1$. Then,
$$F_Y(y)=F_X(1-e^{-\lambda y})=1-e^{-\lambda y}.$$
What does that mean? $Y \sim ??$