For this problem, I was given a hint that when $x$ is large, $\frac 1x$ is nearly zero, and $x \sim n\pi$ where $n$ is a large integer.
Initially tried the taylor expansion, but that didn't work out.
I then assumed that since $x$ is large that $\frac 1x \sim \epsilon$ ? I ran into issues once I started to solve the problem and thought maybe that wasn't the correct approach either.
Any hints/suggestions would be greatly appreciated.
Let $x=n\pi+\delta$. Show that $\tan x=\tan\delta\sim1/(n\pi)\to0$ as $n\to\infty$, which then justifies $\tan\delta\sim\delta$. Conclude from there.