Determine whether or not $∀x[p(x) → q(x)]$ and $[∀xp(x)] → [∀xq(x)]$ are logically equivalent.

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Determine whether or not $∀x[p(x) → q(x)]$ and $[∀xp(x)] → [∀xq(x)]$ are logically equivalent.

I believe that they are not equivalent, but that is just an assumption. I am not sure how to go about proving this.