Let $U_{1}\sim U(0,1)$ be a standard uniform random variable. Is $U_{1}-U_{1}$ uniformly distributed?
I've been trying to work this out as follows: Let $A,B$ be rv's $$P(A-B\leq x)=\int_{0}^{1}P(A\leq u,B \geq u-x)du$$ Take $A=B=U_{1}$ then $$P(U_{1}-U_{1}\leq x)=\int_{0}^{1}P(U_{1}\leq u,U_{1} \geq u-x)du$$ $$=\int_{0}^{1}P(u-x\leq U_{1}\leq u)du=\int_{0}^{1}xdu=x$$ Which would mean that indeed $U_{1}-U_{1}$ is uniformly distributed.
Am I approaching this in the right way and is my statement correct or am I overlooking something?
I would approach the question this way:
If $-1 \lt x \lt 0$ then $$P(A-B \lt x)= \int_{a=0}^{1+x} \int_{b=a-x}^{1} \,db \,da=\int_{a=0}^{1+x} (1-a+x) \,da =\frac{(1+x)^2}{2}$$ while by symmetry if $0 \lt x \lt 1$ then $$P(A-B \lt x)=1-\frac{(1-x)^2}{2}.$$
So the density of the difference of these two independent random variables uniformly distributed on $[0,1]$ is the deriviative with respect to $x$ of these cumulative distribution functions:
Since the density varies with $x$, it is clearly not uniform, and is in fact triangular centred at $0$.