Different answers for same integral.

51 Views Asked by At

Let, $x = \cos(\theta)$ and

$$s = \int^{1}_{-1}\frac{1 \ dx}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}.$$

If we let $1 = \cos(2\pi)$ and $-1 = \cos(\pi)$, we obtain: $$s = -\int^{2\pi}_{\pi}1 dx = -\pi.$$

However, if we let $1 = \cos(0)$ and $-1 = \cos(\pi)$, we obtain: $$s = -\int^{0}_{\pi}1 dx = \pi.$$

1

There are 1 best solutions below

0
On BEST ANSWER

Your substitution requires the use of the inverse cosine function in the transformed limits [ $ \theta \ = \ \arccos(x) \ $ ] . So $ \ \arccos(1) \ = \ 0 \ $ and $ \ \arccos(-1) \ = \ \pi \ $ , making your second definite integral the correct one.