Endow $\mathbb{Q}$ (the rationals) with the p-adic (resp. q-adic) topology, where p,q are primes. Are these topological spaces homeomorphic?
I know the norms are not equivalent, therefore do not induce the same topology. What I am asking is if the two distinct topologies are homeomorphic to one another. The reason I am asking is that I know that $\mathbb{Q}_p$ and $\mathbb{Q}_q$ are homeomorphic to each other.
Yes this is true. Here's a somewhat roundabout proof, by application of two theorems about Cantor sets (and my guess is that any route to a direct proof will, more or less, repeat the elements of the proofs of these two theorems).
The completion of $\mathbb{Q}$ with respect to the $p$-adic norm is the complete metric space denoted $\mathbb{Q}_p$, and the completion of $\mathbb{Q}$ with respect to the $q$-adic norm is $\mathbb{Q}_q$.
Neither of the metric spaces $\mathbb{Q}_p$ and $\mathbb{Q}_q$ is compact, so let me denote their 1-point compactifications as $1pc(\mathbb{Q}_p)$ and $1pc(\mathbb{Q}_q)$. Those two spaces are each compact, metrizable, totally disconnected, and have no isolated points. Therefore, by a general theorem of metric spaces, the two spaces $1pc(\mathbb{Q}_p)$ and $1pc(\mathbb{Q}_q)$ are both homeomorphic to the Cantor middle thirds set $C$.
In the $p$-adic norm topology, $\mathbb{Q}$ is a countable dense subset of $1pc(\mathbb{Q}_p)$. In the $q$-adic norm topology, $\mathbb{Q}$ is a countable dense subset of $1pc(\mathbb{Q}_q)$. By another general theorem of metric spaces, for any two countable dense subsets $X,Y \subset C$ there is a homeomorphism $f : C \to C$ such that $f(X)=Y$; hence, by restriction of $f$, we get a homeomorphism from $X$ to $Y$. Putting this together with the previous paragraph, we get a homeomorphism from $\mathbb{Q}$ with the $p$-adic norm topology to $\mathbb{Q}$ with the $q$-adic norm topology.
A good source for this material is Chapter 12, "Homeomorphisms between Cantor sets", in the book "Geometric topology in dimensions 2 and 3" by Moise.