I was recently Taylor-expanding ln around $(1,0)$. I noticed that this polynomial will have a range of input that converges between $0$ and $2$ regardless of Taylor order. I then found an expansion that did not seem to have this issue, namely:
$\lim_{n \to +\infty} 2 \cdot \sum\limits_{i=0}^n (\frac{1}{2i + 1} \cdot {(\frac{x-1}{x+1})}^{2i + 1}) = \ln(x)$
My question is: how is this formula derived (as in created, not the derivative) from ln?
If you combine the Taylor series for $\log(1+x)$ and $\log(1-x)$ you arrive to a well known series which is $$\log \frac{1+x}{1-x}=2 \sum_{i=0}^\infty \frac{x^{2i+1}}{2i + 1} $$ So now define $y=\frac {1+x}{1-x}$ that is to say $x=\frac{y-1}{y+1}$ and you end with $$\log(y)=\sum_{i=0}^\infty \frac{1}{2i + 1} (\frac{y-1}{y+1})^{2i+1}$$