I am studying the PDE book Partial Differential Equations in Action, From Modelling to Theory, by Sandro Salsa. I would like to ask two questions about the differentiation of the Newtonian potential of a function $f$, $$ u(x)=\int_{\mathbb{R}^3} \Phi(x-y) f(y)\,\mathrm{d}y=(\Phi\ast f)(x), $$ where $$\Phi(x)=\frac{1}{4\pi}\frac{1}{|x|}$$ is the fundamental solution of the Poisson equation $-\Delta u=\delta_0$.
In a footnote in page 130, it is stated the following: if $g\in C^1(\mathbb{R}^3)$ and $|g(x)|\leq M/|x|^{2+\epsilon}$, then $$ \frac{\partial}{\partial x_j}\int_{\mathbb{R}^3}\frac{1}{|x-y|}g(y)\,\mathrm{d}y=\int_{\mathbb{R}^3}\frac{1}{|x-y|}\frac{\partial g}{\partial y_j}(y)\,\mathrm{d}y. $$ Usually, results on differentiation under the integral sign requiere bounds on the derivative, so that the Dominated Convergence Theorem can be applied. I do not know how to proceed in this case.
In Theorem 3.9, it is said that if $f\in C_c^2(\mathbb{R}^3)$ (i.e., $C^2$ with compact support), then its Newtonian potential $u=\Phi\ast f$ is $C^2(\mathbb{R}^3)$ and $-\Delta u=f$. The fact that $f$ is $0$ outside a ball and $1/|x|$ is locally integrable allows differentiating under the integral sign. But, in Remark 3.6, it is said that the theorem holds when $f\in C^1(\mathbb{R}^3)$ and $|f(x)|\leq M/|x|^{2+\epsilon}$. Any idea or reference on why this statement is true?