Both the product topology and the box topology are defined "indirectly".
The box topology of $A,B$ is defined as the topology generated by the base given by the cartesian product of open sets in $A,B$. Can we define the box topology "directly", without talking about a base?
Similarly, the product topology of $A,B$ is defined as the "coarsest topology on $A\times B$ for which the projections are continuous", but can we define it "directly" without reference to "coarsest"?
If not, what makes it so that we can't do this?
Remark. Let $X$ be a set. Let $\mathscr{T}$ (script T) be a collection of topologies on $X$. Then $\bigcap\mathscr{T}$ is a topology on $X$.
Definition. Let $\{(X_i,\mathcal{T}_i)\}$ be a family of topological spaces. Define $$P:=\prod_i X_i:=\{x_{(\cdot)}:(\forall i)[x_i\in X_i]\}.$$ Let $\mathscr{T}$ be the collection of all topologies on $P$ where each element $\mathcal{I}$ of $\mathscr{T}$ satisfies the following property: For each familiy of open sets $\{U_i\}$, where $U_i\in\mathcal{T}_i$, we have $\prod_iU_i\in\mathcal{I}$. The box topology on $P$ is $\bigcap\mathscr{T}$.
For each $i$, define the projection $\pi_i:P\to X_i:x_{(\cdot)}\mapsto x_i$. Let $\mathcal{I}$ be any topology on $P$. Observe $\pi_i$ is continuous if and only if $\{\pi_i^{-1}(U):U\in\mathcal{T}_i\}\subseteq \mathcal{I}$. The product topology on $P$ is $\bigcap\mathscr{T}$, where $\mathscr{T}$ is the collection of all topologies $\mathcal{I}$ on $P$ satisfying the following. $$(\forall i)[\{\pi_i^{-1}(U):U\in\mathcal{T}_i\}\subseteq \mathcal{I}].$$
The topology on $\mathbb{R}$ can be defined directly. Indeed, the open sets of $\mathbb{R}$ is the following set. $$\big\{U\subseteq\mathbb{R}:\big(\exists\{(a_i,b_i)\}_{i\in I}:a_i<b_i\big)\big[U=\bigcup_{i\in I}(a_i,b_i)\big]\big\}.$$