Let $X$ and $Y$ be independent random variables, taking values in the positive integers and having the same mass function $f(x)=2^{-x}$ for $x=1,2,..... \infty$
Find $P(Y\gt X)$.
Here's what I did,
$P(Y \gt X) = \sum_{x=1}^{\infty} \{P(Y \ge x,X \le x) - P(Y=x,X=x)\}$
I think this equation is correct because; for any arbitary $x$, we must have $X$ smaller than it, and $Y$ greater than it (that is the first part). Then I subtract the probability that both of them are equal to $x$ (the second part).
$\sum_{x=1}^{\infty}P(Y=x,X=x) = \sum_{x=1}^{\infty} P(Y=x)P(X=x) = \sum_{x=1}^{\infty} 4^{-x} = \frac 13$
$P(Y \ge x,X \le x)=P(Y \ge x)P(X \le x) = P(X \le x) .(1-P(Y\le x) + P(Y=x)) $
After this, I solved for $P(X \le x)$ and $P(Y \le x)$ using the mass distribution function.
Next I just solved simplified the equations until I got the answer.
I know there is something wrong as I get the probability as $1$.
Any help would be appreciated.
As others have suggested, you could use that $P(Y<X) = P(X<Y)$ since they are IID. But your initial step is wrong as there is a whole lot of double counting happening. Instead of that try writing(more along your approach) $$P(Y>X) = \sum_{x=1}^{\infty}P(X = x, Y>x) = \sum_{x=1}^{\infty}P(X=x)(1 - P(Y \leq x))$$ Since the variables are independent.