Hello I am encountering difficulties with the following problem, please help.
Let $\{ Y_n \}_{n \geq 0}$ be a martingale w.r.t. the filtration $\{ F_n \}_{n \geq 0}$, and let $\mathbb E(Y_n^2) < \infty$ for all $n$. Show that for arbitrary $i \leq j \leq k$
$$\mathbb E((Y_k − Y_j)Y_i) = 0$$ and $$\mathbb E[(Y_k − Y_j)^2|F_i] = \mathbb E(Y_k^2|F_i) − \mathbb E(Y_j^2|F_i)$$
changing $k \rightarrow j$ and subtructing we have the first equality.
but now:
This way we have the second equality.
Use has been made as suggested repeatedly of https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Law_of_total_expectation and of the Martingale property.