I've been having trouble figuring on this logical equivalent problem. Any help would be appreciated.
(p ^ q) v (~p ^ ~q) = p <-> q
My work so far:
p <-> q
=(p->q) ^ (q->p)
Using conditional equivalence
=(~p v q) ^ (~q v p)
At this point I got stuck and I don't know what to do. I assume I use demorgans law now so it would be
=(p ^ ~q) v (q v~p)
I feel that that's wrong though. Thank you for any help.
Use Distribution:
$$(\neg p \lor q) \land (\neg q \lor p) \overset{Distribution}{=}$$
$$(\neg p \land \neg q) \lor (\neg p \land p) \lor (q \land \neg q) \lor (q \land p) \overset{Complement}{=}$$
$$(\neg p \land \neg q) \lor \bot \lor \bot \lor (q \land p) \overset{Identity}{=}$$
$$(\neg p \land \neg q) \lor (q \land p) \overset{Commutation}{=}$$
$$(p \land q) \lor (\neg p \lor \neg q)$$