question regarding nested quantifiers.
$$\forall x \forall y\big((x < y)\to (x^2 < y^2)\big)$$ Determine the truth value for this question. I think this is false because if $x$ is $4$ and $y$ is $2$, the statement is false. but then it could be true if $x$ is $2$ and $y$ is $4$ ... I'm so confused at the moment...
The statement $\forall x \forall y\big((x < y)\to (x^2 < y^2)\big)$ is true iff
$$(x < y)\to (x^2 < y^2)$$
is true for all $x, y$. But the above fails for $x = -5, y = 0$, so $\forall x \forall y\big((x < y)\to (x^2 < y^2)\big)$ is false.