Is the following implication valid?
$(∃(x))(P(x)∨Q(x))⟹\lnot (∀(x))P(x)∨(∃(x))Q(x)$
For proving this I used to follow a method to by making L.H.S as 1 and try to make R.H.S as 0.
My work:-
I am having a small trouble while reading the R.H.S of the implication.The scope of the negation is bounded to only Universal quantifier or to the entire statement?
If the R.H.S is :- $\lnot ∀(x)P(x)∨(∃(x))Q(x)$,then it means the negation of the entire statement.But as there are braces, I am getting a bit confused.As I have read that Quantifiers has higher precedence, does this mean it is the negation of only the quantifier?
How should I read it:- $(∃(x))P(x)∨(∃(x))Q(x)$ or
$(∃(x))\lnot P(x)∨(∃(x))Q(x)$
The left hand side reads: 'There is something that is either a $P$ or a $Q$'. The right hand side reads: 'Either not everything is a $P$, or there is something that is a $Q$.
There is a simple counterexample to this implication: consider a domain with just one object, that has property $P$, but not $Q$. Then there is something that is either a $P$ or a $Q$ (since it is a $P$), so the left hand side is True. But it is not true that not everything is a $P$ (since everything is a $P$), or that there is smething that is a $Q$, and hence the right hand side is false. So, the implication does not hold.