I have a problem that I have trouble to think of the proof. It is obvious that the answer will be Uniform Distribution intuition wise, but how do I prove it?
Question: Let $U$ be a continuous uniform $(0,1)$ random variable. Find the distribution of $1-U$.
First, the CDF of $U$ is $F_y(t) = t$, for $0 \le t \le 1.$ Now let $V = 1-U$. We seek the CDF of $V:$
$$F_V(t) = P(V \le t) = P(1 - U \le t) = P(U \ge 1 - t)\\ = 1 - P(U \le (1 - t)) = 1 - (1-t) = t.$$
So $V$ has the same CDF as $U,$ and hence the same distribution.