let us consider following data

and here is its chart

generally cosine is not linear function,therefore cosine of uniform variables should not be uniform as well,because if
$x=cos(y)$
$y=\arccos{x}$
according to this site
https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/56040/cosine-of-a-uniform-random-variable
as i understood cosine of uniform variables distributed in $|0, 2*\pi|$ is not again uniform variables right? then what kind of distribution it is supposed to be? thanks in advance
The uniform distribution on $[-\pi, \pi]$ has constant probability density function $f_Y(y) = 2/\pi$ for all $y$. However if $x$ has uniform distribution on $[-\pi, \pi]$ and $y = \cos (x)$, then $y$ has probability density $f_Y(y) = (1/\pi)(1/\sqrt{1-y^2})$ which integrates to $1$ so it is a probability density, but it is unbounded because values close to $1$ become more and more likely. And so no, $\cos x$ is not uniformly distributed if $x$ is.