I am curious about this: suppose we consider all numbers in base $b$ such that the number of digits $n$ in this range is the same ( eg, in base $10$ it could be $10-to-99$ for $n=2$, or $100-to-999$ for $n=3$, etc; leading digit is non-zero), for the prime numbers in this range, if I were to choose a prime number at random can I expect the distribution of the digits of my prime to be uniform random? That is, $\frac{n}{b}$.
Thank you.
For any specific digit you can. In fact you can even show that a percentage of the digits are uniform.
A Theorem of Bourgain from which the above follows immediately says that
(Here $\log =\log_{e}$. Also recall that the number of primes up to $2^n$ asymptotically equals to $\frac{2^n}{n\log 2}$.)