if x ,y ∈ Z. and x|y,y|x,then x does NOT equal to y. Can anyone give me a counter example please?
2026-04-13 10:43:12.1776076992
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divisibility question: if two integers can both divide each other, do they have to be equal?
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For positive integers $x$ and $y$ if $x|y$ and $y|x$ then $x=y$.
Proof:
By prime factorization, let $x = \prod_p p^{x_p}$ and $y = \prod_p p^{y_p}$ .
If $x|y$ then $x_p \le y_p$. If $y|x$ then $y_p \le x_p$.
Therefore, if $x|y$ and $y|x$ then $x_p \le y_p$ and $y_p \le x_p$, so $x_p = y_p$ so that $x = y$.
For general integers $x, y$, if $x | y$ and $y | x$ then you can't quite conclude $x = y$. But the following holds: $$ \forall x, y \in \mathbb{Z} \;:\; (x \mid y \text{ and } y \mid x) \implies |x| = |y|. \tag{1} $$
In particular, if $x \ge 0$ and $y \ge 0$, then $x | y$ and $y | x$ implies $x = y$.