Do we need to know the truth value of P->Q before using the terms sufficient and necessary?

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I am taking a proof course and the implication is really causing me trouble. Every definition I've looked up for sufficient and necessary says something along the lines

"If P suffices for Q, this causes P to guarantee the result Q"

"If Q is necessary for P, P cannot be true without Q being true"

I can understand these definitions and the terminology of sufficient and necessary only if we assume P->Q is already true.

Otherwise I don't see how P can be sufficient. I look at the line on the truth table when P is true, but Q is false.

We know P is true, yet Q is false. How could P guarantee for Q in that case?

Thank you.

Here's the definition of sufficient where I am getting hung up on.

A condition A is said to be sufficient for a condition B, if (and only if) the truth (/existence /occurrence) [as the case may be] of A guarantees (or brings about) the truth (/existence /occurrence) of B... This is the definition I get stuck on.

If there's a possibility that A is true, but B ends up false. How can A always be sufficient for B?

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These are just phrases that we use to express logical statements. The English sentence "P suffices for Q" (or "P implies Q", or "if P then Q") translates to the formal statement "P $\implies$ Q". It's a declaration. Similarly "Q is necessary for P" (or "P only if Q") translates to "$\neg$Q $\implies$ $\neg$P" (which is actually logically equivalent to "P $\implies$ Q".)

You're right, this is not a tautology. There are lines in the truth table where "P $\implies$ Q" evaluates to be false. "Necessary" and "sufficient" are just terms we use to describe some possible relationships between boolean variables.

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$P \implies Q$ does not mean that $\neg P \implies \neg Q$.

Moreover, $(P \implies Q) \land (\neg P \implies \neg Q) \equiv (P \implies Q) \land (Q \implies P) \equiv (P \iff Q)$.