Does an analytic $f$ need be polynomial to close $\mathbb{Q}$

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If an analytic function $f : \mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ satisfies $f(\mathbb{Q}) \subseteq \mathbb{Q}$, can we conclude that $f$ is a polynomial?

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$f(x)=\frac{1}{x^2+1}$ is analytic but not a polynomial.