There are researchers who made the following assumptions in their paper on the Penrose inequality:
Let $M$ be a complete, connected Riemannian $3$-manifold and suppose that the boundary $\partial M$ of $M$ is compact and consists of minimal surfaces, and $M$ contains no other compact minimal surfaces.
I'm not sure I understand these assumptions correctly. Are they talking about the (connected) components of $\partial M$? Since $\partial M$ is assumed to be compact, there are finitely many boundary components. Each of these components is a compact surface in $M$. If we assume all of them are minimal surfaces, is $\partial M$ going to be a minimal surface? The converse seems to be true since if $\partial M$ has mean curvature that is identically zero, it is reasonable to see that each boundary component has mean curvature that is also identically zero. Can we make it an iff statement? Also, I don't know why the authors assume that $M$ contains no other compact minimal surfaces. What if we join together some of the boundary components (assumed to be minimal surfaces) to make another minimal surface? I really need some help. Thank you.
Yes, by "$\partial M$ consists of minimal surfaces" they just mean that each connected component of $\partial M$ is a minimal surface - they're just emphasizing that $\partial M$ need not be connected. (Some people may also require connectedness in their definition of "minimal surface" - I'm not sure.)
If you want to get precise, their "no other minimal surfaces" should probably be phrased as "no minimal surfaces that are not subsets of $\partial M$". As to why they make this assumption: it's been 10 years since I looked at this paper, so maybe take this with a grain of salt; but from memory it's essentially ensuring that $\partial M$ includes all event horizons, so that it makes sense to use the area of its components in the Penrose inequality. Without this assumption you could have some other horizon in the interior of $M$ not being counted.