It seems like a bijective function have same left and right inverse. Can someone provide an example which support (or not) my idea?
2026-04-01 11:26:43.1775042803
Does bijective function have same right and left inverse?
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The set of bijectives functions form a group under the operation of composition. So the left inverse and the right inverse are the same. Which is in fact unique. An easy example would be the linear real functions $f(x)=kx$ for some real $k$. So in this case the inverse is $f^{-1}(x)={x\over k}$.