Let $P$ be a quantifier-free decidable formula, i.e. one can prove $P \lor \lnot P$. Does it follow that $\lnot \lnot P \to P$ intuitionistically?
Informally, a decidability of a formula means local LEM, but is it correct to treat it as "a piece of classical logic"?
Although the statement $\neg P\vee P$ is not a theorem in intuitionist logic, the conditional claim $\neg P\vee P\vdash \neg\neg P\to P$ may be constructed, through use of Explosion and Disjunctive Elimination.