I would like to know if the Reverse Mathematics has a conclusion for this axiom ($\text{LM}$:Every set of $\mathbb{R}$ is Lebesgue measurable).
I have tried to translate this axiom into a halting problem like $\text{LPO}$, but without success.
2026-03-27 05:39:08.1774589948
Does "Every set of $\mathbb{R}$ is Lebesgue measurable" imply some weakened LEM?
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