Does "independent variables X and dependent variable Y are jointly gaussian" means "the residual term has 0 conditional mean"?

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I saw the following statement in my lecture note:

"The data generation process is $y = x+\epsilon$, whereas in the regression we run y on x so the regression model is $y = \beta_{OLS} x+e$, the approximation error is $e=y-\frac{E[yx]}{E[x^2]}x$. Note that for the joint gaussian distribution of x and y, we have $\rho x=E\left [ \epsilon|x \right ]$, where $\rho = 1-\beta_{OLS}$"

I feel $\rho x=E\left [ \epsilon|x \right ]$ comes from $E\left [ e|x \right ]=0$, but I'm not sure how we can reach this?

Does anyone understand what is the logic here? Thanks a lot!