$$\newcommand{\arctanh}{~\mathrm{arctanh}~}\newcommand{\sech}{~\mathrm{sech}~}$$
$$I=\int_{-1}^1\frac{\arctan x}{\arctanh x}\,\mathrm{d}x$$ Mathematica gives an approximate result of $I=1.581949621806183890451628...$, but no exact form. I predict it's a function of $e$ and $\pi$, and perhaps even the Golden Ratio $\phi$ (It certainly wouldn't be the first time)
The motivation behind this question is pure curiosity. I thought the shape looked nice :)
1st edit: Substitutions of $x=\tan u$ and $x=\tanh u$ respectively yield $$I= 2\int_{-\pi/4}^{\pi/4}\dfrac{u\sec^2u}{\ln|\frac{1+\tan u}{1-\tan u}|}\,\mathrm{d}u$$ $$I= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\dfrac{\arctan(\tanh u)}{u}\sech^2u\,\mathrm{d}u$$
2nd edit: I've considered another approach starting with parameterizing the desired integral by $$I_a=\int_{-1}^1\frac{\arctan ax}{\arctanh x}\,\mathrm{d}x$$ so that $$\frac{\partial I_a}{\partial a}=\int_{-1}^1\frac{x}{(1+(ax)^2)\arctanh x}\,\mathrm{d}x$$ Integrating by parts with $$\begin{matrix}u=\dfrac{1}{\arctanh x}&&\mathrm{d}v=\dfrac{x}{1+(ax)^2}\,\mathrm{d}x\\[1ex] \mathrm{d}u=\dfrac{\mathrm{d}x}{(x^2-1)\arctanh^2x}&&v=\dfrac{1}{2a^2}\log(1+(ax)^2)\end{matrix}$$ yields the following integral: $$\frac{\partial I_a}{\partial a}=\frac{1}{2a^2}\int_{-1}^1\frac{\log(1+(ax)^2)}{(1-x^2)\arctanh^2x}\,\mathrm{d}x$$ which can be modified by a substitution of $y=\arctanh x$ to obtain $$\frac{\partial I_a}{\partial a}=\frac{1}{2a^2}\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\log(1+(a\tanh y)^2)}{y^2}\,\mathrm{d}y$$
I have an idea of approaching the remaining integral using the series expansion of $\log(1+x)$; namely, the integral would become $$\frac{\partial I_a}{\partial a}=\frac{1}{2a^2}\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\mathrm{d}y}{y^2}\sum_{k=1}^\infty\frac{(-1)^{k+1}}{k}(a\tanh y)^{2k}=-\frac{1}{2a^2}\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{a^{2k}(-1)^k}{k}\underbrace{\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\tanh^{2k}y}{y^2}\,\mathrm{d}y}_{J_k}$$ According to this question, we have a closed from $J_k$ in the case of $k=1$ and potentially all $k>1$ in terms of the Riemann zeta function, but I have yet to do any more investigation.
Another method that occurred to me was to consider a keyhole contour to tackle $\dfrac{\partial I_a}{\partial a}$ but I'm afraid I'm not familiar enough with complex analysis to make that jump just yet.
The Gudermannian function can be defined as: $$ \text{gd}(x)= \int_0^x\frac{dt}{\cosh(t)}= 2\arctan(\tanh(\frac{1}{2}x)) $$
Furthermore, notice that: $$\text{gd}'(x)=\frac{1}{\cosh(x)}$$ with this in mind, the integral can be rewritten as: $$\int_{0} ^{+\infty}\frac{\text{gd}(2x)(\text{gd'}(x))^2}{x}dx$$
From here on out it gets messy. Trying to compute $\int \text{gd}(2x)(\text{gd'}(x))^2$ alone yields a closed form (though a very complicated one!). So I doubt that the actual integral could be written in terms of common mathematical constants (at least through this path, i.e. setting $x=\tanh(u)$). I've tried differentiating under the integral sign using several functions of $t$, to no avail.
EDIT I don't know if this'll help: I've also considered the following: $$\int_{-1}^1 \frac{\arctan(x)}{\text{arctanh}(x)}dx=\frac{1}{2}i\int_{-1}^1 \frac{\ln(1+ix)-\ln(1-ix)}{\text{arctanh}(x)}dx$$$$=\frac{1}{2}i\int_{-1}^1 \frac{[\ln(1+ixy)]_{-1}^1}{\text{arctanh}(x)}dx=\frac{1}{2}i\int_{-1}^1\int_{-1}^1 \frac{1}{(1+ixy)\text{arctanh}(x)}dydx$$
But hit a road block at the end.