We know that if $\{M_n\}$ is a martingale, we know from definition of martingale that $E(M_n) = M_0$ for all $n \geq 0$. However, if we only know that a sequence of random variables $\{X_n\}$ is a local martingale, do we still have the result that $$E(X_n) = X_0, \forall n\geq 0?$$
And why?
Based on the first paragraph of Wiki, no: