Does separate almost everywhere continuity imply joint almost everywhere continuity?

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My question is almost the same as this question.

Let $f(\cdot, \cdot): R^2 \rightarrow R$. Suppose that:

(a) Fix any $y \in R, f(\cdot, y)$ is continuous almost everywhere.

(b) Fix any $x \in R, f(x, \cdot)$ is continuous almost everywhere.

Is $f(\cdot, \cdot): R^2 \rightarrow R$ is continuous almost everywhere?

I didn't really understand the reasoning in the comments of the linked question. Any help is most appreciated.