Suppose $S$ is a stopping time. How do I show that $\sigma(\cup_{n=0}^\infty \mathcal{F}_{S \wedge n}) = \mathcal{F}_S$?
This is a VERY basic question but I'm very confused. The inclusion $\sigma(\cup_{n=0}^\infty \mathcal{F}_{S \wedge n}) \subseteq \mathcal{F}_S$ is trivial, but the reverse direction is impossible for me.
Trying to answer myself:
Suppose $A \in \mathcal{F}_S \implies A \cap \{S = i\} \in \mathcal{F}_i \quad \forall i\in \mathbb{N}$
$A = \cup_{i = 0}^\infty (A \cap \{S = i\}) \cup (A \cap\{S=\infty\})$
Fix $i$ and choose any $n > i$.
Now $A \cap\{S = i\} \cap\{S\wedge n \leq k\} = A \cap \{S = i\}$ for $k \ge i$ and is the empty set otherwise.
As $\mathcal{F}_i \subseteq \mathcal{F}_k$ for $k \ge i$, we have that $A \cap \{S=i\} \in \mathcal{F}_{S\wedge n} \subset \sigma(\cup_{n \in \mathbb{N}}\mathcal{F}_{S\wedge n})$
I can't figure out why the the event $A \cap \{S = \infty \} \in \sigma(\cup_{n=0}^\infty \mathcal{F}_{S \wedge n})$, which is all I would need to conclude.
Please help me. This is astronomically demoralizing, because I think this should be really simple.
Note that $A \cap \{S = \infty \}$ = $\cap_{i \in \mathbb{N}}A \cap \{S > i \}$
Fixing $i$, we see that $A \cap \{S > i \} \in \mathcal{F}_i$ [I'M NOT SURE IF THIS IS RIGHT]
Fix $n = i$. We have that $ A \cap \{S > i \} \cap \{S \wedge n \leq k \} = A \cap \{S > i \}$ if $k \ge i$ and is the empty set otherwise.
As $\mathcal{F}_i \subseteq \mathcal{F}_k$ for all $k \ge i$, we FINALLY conclude that $A \cap \{S > i \} \in \mathcal{F}_{S\wedge n}$.
Therefore we have that $A$ is acountable union of sets inside the sigma algebra genererated by the $\mathcal{F}_n$.
Can someone please tell me if this is correct?