Does this contravene the dominated convergence theorem?

280 Views Asked by At

The function $f_n$: $\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is defined by $f_n(x):=\chi_{[0,\infty)}(x)\frac{1}{n}\exp(-\frac{x}{n})$, where $n\in \mathbb{N}$.

$f(x):=\lim\limits_{n \rightarrow \infty}{f_n(x)}$ is lebesgue integrable.

And $\int_\mathbb{R} f(x) d\lambda(x) \neq \lim\limits_{n \rightarrow \infty}{\int_\mathbb{R} f_n(x) d\lambda(x)}$.

Does this violate the dominated convergence theorem?

1

There are 1 best solutions below

0
On BEST ANSWER

[All credit goes to Gautam Shenoy]

$\int_\mathbb{R} f(x) d\lambda(x) \neq \lim\limits_{n \rightarrow \infty}{\int_\mathbb{R} f_n(x) d\lambda(x)}$ does not violate the DCT, because you need a dominating function $g$ with $|f_n|\leq g$.

$f$ does not qualify for this, as it equals $0$ for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$