$$N=\sum_{i=1}^{n} C^i_n = \sum_{i=1}^n\frac{n(n-1)\cdots(n-i+1)}{i!}$$
Does $N = 2^n-1$ hold ?
I mean, $C^i_n = \binom{n}{i}$. According to the binomial formula, if this summation sums from $i=0$ instead of $i=1$, then it's equal to $2^n$.
Because of this, does this sum to $2^n-1$?
Yes. We know that $$ \sum_{i=0}^n \binom{n}{i} = 2^n. $$ Therefore $$ \sum_{i=1}^n \binom{n}{i} = \sum_{i=1}^n \binom{n}{i} + \binom{n}{0} - \binom{n}{0} = \sum_{i=0}^n \binom{n}{i}-\binom{n}{0} = 2^n-1. $$