I'm a statistics teacher at a college. One day a student came with a doubt about an exercise about probability. The text goes like this:
A person has two boxes $A$ and $B$. In the first one has $4$ white balls and $5$ black balls and in the second has $5$ white balls and $4$ black balls. This person takes randomly one ball from the first box and put it into the second box. After that he takes a ball from the second box. Find the probability of taking balls of the same color in this process (i.e, the one that is taken from box $A$ to $B$ and the one taken from box $B$).
The student made the following: Let $C$ be the event of taking balls of the same color in the process above described. Let $W$ be the event of taking White balls from both boxes and $Bl$ the event of taking black balls from both boxes. Let $Wb_1$ be the event of taking a white ball from the first box and $Wb_2$ the event of taking a white ball from the second box. The same with $Blb_1$ and $Blb_2$. Then,
\begin{align} \mathbb P(C)&=\mathbb P(W)+\mathbb P(Bl)\\ &= \mathbb P(Wb_1)\mathbb P(Wb_2)+\mathbb P(Blb_1)\mathbb P(Blb_2)\\&= \frac49 \cdot\frac6{10} + \frac59\cdot\frac5{10} \end{align}
I told the student the reasoning was wrong because he has to use conditional probability because events $Wb_1$ and $Wb_2$ as well as $Blb_1$ and $Blb_2$ are not independent. A probability teacher (his actual teacher) told the student he was right and that's why I make this post. ¿Who is right? Thanks!
The calculation on the right-hand side is correct; just the notation is bad, because as you say the right-hand factors in both terms are conditional probabilities. A better way to write this would be
$$ P(\text{C})=P(\text{W})+P(\text{Bl})= P(\text{Wb1})P(\text{Wb2}\mid\text{Wb1})+P(\text{Blb1})P(\text{Blb2}\mid\text{Blb1})=\frac49\cdot\frac6{10}+\frac59\cdot\frac5{10}\;. $$