Fourier transform of a gaussian is another gaussian. Fourier/Laplace transforms of $\frac{1}{\sqrt t}$ is something like $\frac{1}{\sqrt \omega}$.
I realize that we can't call these eigenfunctions since the variable is also changed, but is there a special name, are there other interesting stuff to know about these?
I'll just add some detail to to Cameron William's answer. Cameron's answer is correct.
The term eigenvector is usually reserved for a linear a operator $A : X\rightarrow X$ on some particular linear space $X$; $x$ is an eigenvector of $A$ if $Ax=\lambda x$ for some scalar $\lambda$. If the linear space consists of functions, then eigenfunction is used interchangeably with eigenvector.
The Fourier transform $\mathscr{F}$ maps $X=L^{2}(\mathbb{R})$ to itself. So it makes sense to talk about eigenfucntions of $\mathscr{F}$ on $L^{2}(\mathbb{R})$. $\mathscr{F}$ is unitary, meaning that (a) $\|\mathscr{F}f\|=\|f\|$ for all $f\in L^{2}$, and (b) $\mathscr{F}$ is surjective. It turns out that $\mathscr{F}$ has an orthonormal basis of eigenfunctions, and the eigenvalues are $1,i,-1,-i$. The normalized eigenfunction are the Hermite functions $$ h_{n}(x) = \frac{(-1)^{n}e^{x^{2}/2}}{(2\pi)^{1/4}2^{n/2-1/4}\sqrt{n!}}\frac{d^{n}}{dx^{n}}e^{-x^{2}},\;\;\; n=0,1,2,3,\cdots . $$ The Hermite functions satisfy $$ \mathscr{F} h_{n} = i^{n}h_{n},\;\;\|h_{n}\|_{L^{2}}=1,\;\; n=0,1,2,3,\cdots . $$ These functions also satisfy the Hermite differential equation $$ -h''+x^{2}h = 0. $$ This equation is invariant under the Fourier transform.
The Laplace transform of $1/\sqrt{t}$ is \begin{align} \int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{\sqrt{t}}e^{-st}dt & = \frac{1}{\sqrt{s}} \int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{\sqrt{st}}e^{-st}d(ts) \\ & = \frac{1}{\sqrt{s}}\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{\sqrt{u}}e^{-u}du \\ & = \Gamma(1/2)\frac{1}{\sqrt{s}} = \sqrt{\pi}\frac{1}{\sqrt{s}} \end{align} In this context, it is unusual to think of $1/\sqrt{x}$ as an eigenfunction because it is difficult to formulate the Laplace transform $\mathscr{L}$ in such a way that it maps some space to itself. It is more natural to think of $\mathscr{L} : L^{2}[0,\infty) \rightarrow H^{2}(\Pi_{+})$ where $H^{2}(\Pi_{+})$ is the Hardy space of holomorphic functions on the right half-plane $\Pi_{+}$ with $L^{2}$ boundary values; this correspondence is also unitary from one Hilbert space to a different Hilbert space, but, in this context, eigenfunction doesn't make sense.