In the following question I got that $0$ is not an eigenvalue, then $M$ is invertible and using Cayley-Hamilton then I got the last option correctly, then why given that $\alpha+\beta \neq 0$? What is the importance of that? Question is
Suppose that the characteristic equation of $M \in \mathbb{C}^{3 \times 3}$ is $$ \lambda^{3}+\alpha \lambda^{2}+\beta \lambda-1=0 $$ where $\alpha, \beta \in \mathbb{C}$ with $\alpha+\beta \neq 0$. Which of the following statements is TRUE? $$ M(I-\beta M)=M^{-1}(M+\alpha I) $$ $$ M(I+\beta M)=M^{-1}(M-\alpha I) $$ $$ M^{-1}\left(M^{-1}+\beta I\right)=M-\alpha I $$ $$ M^{-1}\left(M^{-1}-\beta I\right)=M+\alpha I $$
I believe that this condition was used to ensure that the fourth equation was the unique solution.
If $\alpha=-1, \beta=1$ then the first equation is true.
If $\alpha=i, \beta=-i$ then the second equation is true.
If $\alpha=0, \beta=0$ then the third equation is true.
Thus $\alpha +\beta \ne 0$ prevents all of these possibilities.