The equation of motion of a mass on a pendulum is
$$ \ddot x + \omega^2\sin x = 0 $$
where $t$ = time and $x$ = inclination from the vertical.
According to my book, it is possible to re-write $ \ddot x $ in terms of $ \dot x $ and $ x $ by using:
$$ \begin{align} \ddot x & = \frac{d \dot x}{dt} \\ & = \frac{d \dot x}{dx} \frac{dx}{dt} \\ & = \frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{1}{2}\dot x^2\right) \end{align}$$
I don't understand where the $ \frac{1}{2} $ comes from. It seems to me that since $\dot x = \frac{dx}{dt}$ we should end up with
$$\frac{d}{dx} \left( \dot x \frac{dx}{dt} \right) = \frac{d}{dx} (\dot x \dot x) = \frac{d}{dx} (\dot x^2) $$
Can anyone tell me where the $1/2$ comes from? Thank you in advance.
let assume that $$\dot x(t)=f(x(t)) $$
You agree that $$\ddot x(t)=\frac{df(x(t))}{dt}=f'(x(t))\dot x(t) $$
In the other hand ,
$y(t)=\frac{1}{2}f(x(t))^2$ has for derivative with respect to x
$$\frac{dy(t)}{dx}=\frac{1}{2}*2*f(x(t))*f'(x(t))$$