Let's say we have 2 sets of entries $x_i$ and $y_i$ for $i=1(1)n$. We are given two facts are told that they're true. Which are:
- $\Sigma x_i = \Sigma y_i$, i.e. their linear/first order sums are equal.
- $\Sigma {x_i}^{2} = \Sigma {y_i}^{2}$, i.e. their second order sums are equal.
Can we therefore conclude that $x_i=y_i$ for each $i$?
Actually, this is a bit imprecise. A better way to present my question would be to ask: Can we therefore say, $$\Bigl( X= \{ x_i\mid i=1(1)n \} \Bigr) = \Bigl( Y= \{ y_i\mid i=1(1)n \} \Bigr) ?$$
So my question is this: If 2 sets of entries have the same 1st and 2nd order sums, should the 2 sets be equal?
Extended Discussion:
- If we take some other pair of consecutive orders, such as 3rd and 4th, and say that the sums of the 2 sets of entries in each those respective orders are equal, then should our entry sets be, again, equal?
- What if we take non consecutive orders? Such as 10th and 15th?
- What if we take fractional orders?
P.S.: I might've tagged irrelevant topics for this question. I'm not sure what this question falls under. Any help will be acknowledged.
Call your first multiset of numbers $\{x,y,z\}$. Then without loss of generality the second multiset will be $\{x+\delta_1,y+\delta_2,z-\delta_1-\delta_2\}$.
Simplify the equation which equates their sums of squares.
You will get a linear equation in $x,y,z$.
Pick any two values for $\delta_1,\delta_2$.
You then just need to solve a single linear equation in $3$ variables.
Just make sure you are not unlucky enough to pick values so that you end up with the same set as you started with, in a different order. You have so much freedom that you can avoid this easily.