I read this formula, but I don't think it's right $$ \binom{1/4}{j} = \frac{(-1)^j(4j-5)!!}{4^j j!} $$
First off, I think that's $(-1)^{j+1}$. Then I have a product like $3\cdot7 \cdot11\cdot15 $. Does this expressed by $(4j-5)!!$?
2026-04-12 20:48:12.1776026892
Equality between double factorial and binomial coefficient
62 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in BINOMIAL-COEFFICIENTS
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