The question is to show that the equation of a circle circumscribing a triangle formed by the lines $a_rx+b_ry+c_r=0$ where $r=1,2,3$ is $$ det[ \begin{vmatrix} \frac{a_1^2+b_1^2}{a_1x+b_1y+c_1} & a_1 & b_1\\ \frac{a_2^2+b_2^2}{a_2x+b_2y+c_2} & a_2 & b_2 \\ \frac{a_3^2+b_3^2}{a_3x+b_3y+c_3} & a_3 & b_3 \end{vmatrix}]=0$$
I tried by using that the fact that equation of circle circumscribing the sides formed by $L_1=0,L_2=0,L_3=0$ is $L_1L_2+ d L_2L_2 + e L_3L_1 =0$ subject to condition that coefficient of $xy=0$ and coefficient of $x^2=y^2$ but i cannot bring it in the form required.Any ideas?Thanks.
This uses the Simson's Theorem that the feet of the perpendiculars from any point $(x,y)$ on the circumcircle on the sides of the triangle are collinear.
The feet of the perpendicular from $(x,y)$ on $a_ix+b_iy+c_i=0$ is given by
$x_i = x - \dfrac{-a(a_ix+b_i y+c)}{a_i^2+b_i^2}, y_i = y - \dfrac{-b(a_i x+b_i y+c)}{a_i^2+b_i^2} $
Since $(x_i,y_i)$ are collinear, we have $\begin{vmatrix} x_1 & y_1 & 1\\ x_2 & y_2 & 1 \\ x_3 & y_3 & 1 \end{vmatrix} = 0$
Substituting and using transformations:
$C_1 \rightarrow C_1-xC_3$
$C_2 \rightarrow C_2-yC_3$
Multiplying $C_1,C_2$ by $\dfrac {a_i^2+b_i^2}{(a_ix+b_i y+c)}$ we arrive at the desired equation
Note: Please also see Derivation of feet of perpendicular