Task
$\vdash \exists x (P(x)\lor Q(x)) \iff \exists xP(x) \lor \exists xQ(x) $
My answer
If we have $A \iff B$ then $A\vdash B$ and $B \vdash A$. So I started trying to see if I could prove $B$ from $A$, but in my tests I couldn't prove that. Below is an image of my attempt.

Is this correct or am I missing a step here? Any help is appreciated, thanks!
Edit
Would it maybe be possible to replace the $?$ with $Q(u) \space\space\space \space \neg Q(u)$ which would result in $\bot$ and from there I could use RAA?
A derivation in natural deduction proving that $\exists x (P(x) \lor Q(x)) \vdash \exists x \, P(x) \lor \exists x \, Q(x)$: $$ \dfrac{\exists x (P(x) \lor Q(x)) \quad \dfrac{[P(x) \lor Q(x)]^*\quad \dfrac{\dfrac{[P(x)]^{**}}{\exists y \, P(y)}\exists_i}{\exists y P(y) \lor \exists z Q(z)}\lor_{i_R} \quad \dfrac{\dfrac{[Q(x)]^{**}}{\exists z \, Q(z)}\exists_i}{\exists y P(y) \lor \exists z Q(z)}\lor_{i_L}}{\exists y \, P(y) \lor \exists z \, Q(z)}\lor_e^{**}}{\exists y \, P(y) \lor \exists z \, Q(z)}\exists_e^* $$
The other direction is quite similar: the last rule of the derivation is a $\lor_e$ whose minor premises are conclusions of $\exists_e$.
In both directions there is no need for RAA.