Let $L(x,y)$ be the statement, "$x$ loves $y$."
If the universe U is the set of all people,
can the statement, "There is exactly one person whom everybody loves."
or, equivalently (according to my textbook): $∃x[∀y(L(y,x)) ∧ ∀z(∀y(L(y,z) → z=x)]$
be written as (my answer):
[($∃x∀yL(y,x)) ∧ (∀z∃y¬L(y,z))] \mbox∣~ x≠z, z∈U$ ?
The original statement is the answer from my textbook, which I think seems pretty weird. That's why I'm trying to rewrite it.
So, if my answer is not a 'better' way to write "There is exactly one person whom everybody loves.", what is the most logical way to write this statement?
The statement from the book $$\exists x [ \forall y L(y,x) \land \forall z ( \forall y L(y,z) \rightarrow z = x ) ]$$
is a good way to express this. To see this you might write the property of a person to be loved by everyone as $$P(x) := \forall y L(y,x)$$
Then the statement becomes $$\exists x [ P(x) \land \forall z ( P(z) \rightarrow z = x ) ]$$
which means that there is a person $x$ with property $P$, and for any person $y$ with property $P$, that person $y$ must already be $x$.
This might further be abbreviated $$\exists! x P(x)$$