My question is based on the Erdos probabilistic method. I am trying to read from the paper here. The proof of Theorem 1 contains the statement
Since a block sequence is monochromatic with probability $2^{1−k}$, it follows from the linearity of expectation that the expected number of monochromatic k-term quasi-progressions under a random coloring is at most $2N^2(c/2)^k/(k − 1)$.
Essentially as I understand the probablistic argument should run as follows: The probability of a particular event $A$ is $2^{1−k}$. We then conclude that the probability of the occuurence of any such event is bounded above by $2^{1−k}\times$ the number of such possible events. The number of possible events is bounded above as per the previous arguments (according to my understanding) in the paper by $N(N-k+1)c^k/(k − 1)$, and forcing $2N(N-k+1)(c/2)^k/(k − 1)$ to be less then $1$ will give us a bound for $N$ within which if $N$ is chosen the desired event is not guaranteed and hence we have a lower bound.
What I am unclear is about the following:
- The reference to the expected number ?
- Why is $2N(N-k+1)(c/2)^k/(k − 1)$ not used instead of $2N^2(c/2)^k/(k − 1)$ ?
If there is some further clarification needed I will be glad to supply it.
Thanks.
(Note that you’ve used both $K$ and $k$ for the paper’s $k$.) You get off track when you say
That product is actually the expected number of occurrences of the event. At that point he’s shown that if there are at most $c^k$ block sequences corresponding to $k$-term quasi-progressions of diameter $1$ having a particular first term and low difference, then the number of such block sequences is at most $$(N-k+1)\cdot\frac{N}{k-1}\cdot c^k\;.$$ The probability that any one of them is monochromatic is $\dfrac1{2^{k-1}}$, so by linearity of expectation the expected number of monochromatic sequences is at most $$(N-k+1)\cdot\frac{N}{k-1}\cdot c^k\cdot\frac1{2^{k-1}}\le\frac{2N^2}{k-1}\left(\frac{c}2\right)^k\;.$$
To put the matter in everyday terms, if you’re a basketball player and have a probability of $0.8$ of making a free throw, and you take $1000$ free throws, on average you can expect to make about $800$ of them. That’s the kind of reasoning used here, and it’s mathematically justifiable.
The replacement of $(N-k+1)N$ by $N^2$ is just a convenience, useful because $k$ is not specified. Even if $k=1$ this version works.