According to Euler's theorem,
$$x^{\varphi({2^k})} \equiv 1 \mod 2^k$$
for each $k>0$ and each odd $x$. Obviously, number of positive integers less than or equal to $2^k$ that are relatively prime to $2^k$ is
$$\varphi({2^k}) = 2^{k-1}$$
so it follows that
$$x^{{2^{k-1}}} \equiv 1 \mod 2^k$$
This is fine, but it seems like even
$$x^{{2^{k-2}}} \equiv 1 \mod 2^k$$
holds, at least my computer didn't find any counterexample.
Can you prove or disprove it?
You have it. For any odd $x$ we get $ x^2 \equiv 1 \pmod 8,$ which is where it starts. Note that we can write any odd $x$ as $4m \pm 1, $ then we get $$ x^2 = (4m \pm 1)^2 = 16 m^2 \pm 8m + 1 \equiv 1 \pmod 8. $$ After that there should be no trouble applying induction.
Sure, just to save typing, take $A = 2^{k-2}.$ Then we begin with $$ x^A \equiv 1 \pmod {4A}, $$ or $$ x^A = 1 + 4 A t. $$ Then $$ x^{2A} = (x^A)^2 = 1 + 8 A t + 16 A^2 t^2 \equiv 1 \pmod {8A}. $$