I was trying to find a closed form for
$$\int_0^1 \frac{\text{Li}_2 \left(-\frac{1}{1-z}\right)-\text{Li}_2 \left(-\frac{1}{1+z}\right)}{z}dz = -2.454199511\cdots$$
where $\text{Li}_2(z)$ is the dilogarithm function. Numerically, it seems very close to $-\frac{49}{24}\zeta(3)$.
How can we prove that $-\frac{49}{24}\zeta(3)$ is the exact value of the integral?
Wolframalpha can anti-differentiate your integrand. There are probably branch cuts involved which would make computing the integral more complicated than just plugging numbers into (or taking limits of) the anti-derivative.