Show that series $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{6}{n(n+1)(n+2)}$$ converges by simplifying its sequence of partial sums and find its sum.
I don't have much detail but this all I have:
$$\begin{align}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{6}{n(n+1)(n+2)} &=\lim_{m\to\infty}\sum_{n=1}^{m}\frac{6}{m(m+1)(m+2)}\\ &=\lim_{m\to\infty}\frac{3(m^2+3m)}{2(m+1)(m+2)}\\ &=\frac{3}{2}\\ \end{align}$$
I know, I don't have much but any help will do with the detail or is it right.
Since \begin{gather*} \frac{1}{n(n+1)(n+2)}=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{1}{n(n+1)}-\frac{1}{(n+1)(n+2)}\right), \end{gather*} we have, by telescoping summation, \begin{align*} \sum_{n=1}^N\frac{1}{n(n+1)(n+2)}&=\frac{1}{2}\sum_{n=1}^N\left(\frac{1}{n(n+1)}-\frac{1}{(n+1)(n+2)}\right)\\ &=\frac{1}{2}\sum_{n=1}^N\frac{1}{n(n+1)}-\frac{1}{2}\sum_{n=1}^N\frac{1}{(n+1)(n+2)}\\ &=\frac{1}{2}\sum_{n=1}^N\frac{1}{n(n+1)}-\frac{1}{2}\sum_{m=2}^{N+1}\frac{1}{m(m+1)}\quad \quad (m=n+1)\\ &=\frac{1}{2}\sum_{n=1}^N\frac{1}{n(n+1)}-\frac{1}{2}\sum_{n=2}^{N+1}\frac{1}{n(n+1)}\\ &=\frac{1}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{2}+\sum_{n=2}^N\frac{1}{n(n+1)}-\frac{1}{2}\sum_{n=2}^{N}\frac{1}{n(n+1)}-\frac{1}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{(N+1)(N+2)}\\ &=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{(N+1)(N+2)}\right)\to \frac{1}{4}, \qquad \text{as } N\to\infty, \end{align*} from which we can infer that \begin{gather*} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{6}{n(n+1)(n+2)}=6\cdot\frac{1}{4}=3/2. \end{gather*}