It is a typical question in Algebraic Geometry to find a Noetherian topological space with infinite dimension: we can take $X=[0,1]$ and check that.
However, it is not so obvious for me to:
Find an affine variety of infinite dimension
Some remarks (because definitions diversify):
An affine variety is an irreducible algebraic set in $\mathbb{A}^n$
An algebraic set is a subset of $\mathbb{A}^n$ of the form $Z(S)$ (locus of $S \subseteq \mathbb{K}[X_1,\ldots,X_n]$)
A topological space $X$ is called reducible if $X=X_1 \cup X_2$ where $X_1, X_2$ are non-empty, proper subsets of $X$ and closed. In the context of the problem, closed means ''is an algebraic set'' (the Zariski topology)
Proof: By definition, the dimension of $X$ is the largest integer $n$ such that there exists a chain $$\varnothing \neq X_0 \subsetneq X_1 \subsetneq \cdots \subsetneq X_n = X$$ of closed and irreducible subsets of $X$. Since $A$ is closed, irreducible and non-empty, let $m$ be the dimension of $A$. Let $$\varnothing \neq Y_0 \subsetneq Y_1 \subsetneq \cdots \subsetneq Y_m = A$$ be a maximal chain of closed and irreducible subsets $A$. If $A=X$, then $$\varnothing \neq Y_0 \subsetneq Y_1 \subsetneq \cdots \subsetneq Y_m = A = X,$$ and then $m = dim(A) = dim(X)$. If $A \neq X$, then $$\varnothing \neq Y_0 \subsetneq Y_1 \subsetneq \cdots \subsetneq Y_m = A \subsetneq X,$$ and then $m = dim(A) \lneq dim(X)$. Therefore $dim(A) \leq dim(X)$. $\clubsuit$
We know that $dim(\mathbb{A}^n)=n$.
An affine variety is by definition always contained in $\mathbb{A}^n$, which has dimension $n$.
Since $\mathbb{A}^n$ is an affine variety, $\mathbb{A}^n$ is irreducible, then we can apply the previous lemma and conclude that every affine variety is of finite dimension.