I was reading this, it mentions about a kind of function in which the exact domain is not known. The only example given is this one - and I'm not really sure I understood it. I got curious about it:
- What are examples of these functions? (beyond the one I suggested as an example)
- What would be needed to know their exact domain?
I got curious about it because I'm an undergraduate student, every function I've seen had a known domain. The idea of not having a domain is completely alien to me. Notice that It's notvery clear what exact domain is, I have in mind only the discrepancy of domain/image.
You can build such a function whenever you have a function $f$ whose zeros are unknown. For example, set $$ f(z) = \frac{1}{\zeta(z)} $$ where $\zeta(z)$ is the Riemann zeta function. It is conjectured, but not proven, that for all zeros of $\zeta(z)$, either $z = -2n$, $n \in \mathbb{N}$ (these are called the trivial zeros) or $\textrm{Re} z = \frac{1}{2}$ (this is what is unknown). It has been proved that all non-trivial zeros lie in the strip $0 < \textrm{Re} z < 1$, so we currently know that the domain of $f$ is at least $$ \textrm{dom } f = \{z \in \mathbb{C} \mid -\tfrac{1}{2}z \notin \mathbb{N} \textrm{ and } \textrm{Re } z \notin (0,1)\} \text{.} $$ If the riemann hypothesis turns out to be true, the domain can be enlarged to $$ \textrm{dom } f = \{z \in \mathbb{C} \mid -\tfrac{1}{2}z \notin \mathbb{N} \textrm{ and } \textrm{Re } z \neq \tfrac{1}{2}\} \text{.} $$