Question:
Let $\Omega=\{a,b,c\}$. Give an example for $X, F_1, F_2$ in which
$E(E(X|F_1)|F_2) \neq E(E(X|F_2)|F_1)$
My answer:
I am not at all sure of my answer. If you have any shorter and nicer answer i will be happy to read it.
-Let define:
(a) $F=B(\Omega ), \; F_1=\left \{ \Omega;\left \{ \emptyset \right \} ;\left \{ a \right \};\left \{ b;c \right \}\right \}, \; F_2=\left \{ \Omega;\left \{ \emptyset \right \} ;\left \{ b \right \};\left \{ a;c \right \}\right \} $.
By def: $Z_{12}=E(X|F_1)$ is a rv $F_1$ measurable, $Z_{21}=E(X|F_2)$ is a rv $F_2$ measurable.
(b) X a bijective measurable function from $(\Omega ; B(\Omega )) \rightarrow (\left \{ 1;2;3 \right \}; B(\left \{ 1;2;3 \right \})) $
-Proof: $Z_{12} \neq Z_{21} \; a.s$
By absurd, we assume that: $Z_{12} = Z_{21} \; a.s \; \Rightarrow E(Z_{12}) = E(Z_{21})$.
(i) But on the other side we have: $E(Z_{12}|F_1) = Z_{12}$ because is $F_1$ measurable.
(ii) And by the absurd assumption: $E(Z_{21}|F_1) = E(Z_{21}) = E(Z_{12}) $
So we get from (i)+(ii): $Z_{12}= E(Z_{21})$ Wich is not necessarly always true.
And of course $Z_{12} \neq Z_{21} \; a.s \; \Rightarrow E(Z_{12}) \neq E(Z_{21})$
-Now from what we just wrotte above:
$E(E(X|F_1)|F_2)=E(Z_{12}|F_2)=E(Z_{12}) \neq E(Z_{21})=E(Z_{21}|F_1)=E(E(X|F_2)|F_1)$
-Q.E.D
Take this with a grain of salt, as I am also a learner of Probability.
Your example is correct in the design (take $F_{1,2}$ such that $F_1 \not\subseteq F_2, F_2 \not\subseteq F_1$), but is wrong in the implementation. In particular, you write:
which I believe is false. While $E[E[X|F_1]|F_2]$ is $F_2$-measurable by definition, it does not have to be $F_1$-measurable.
Let's unwrap your example using the notation $Z = (Z(a), Z(b), Z(c))$ for the values of r.v. $Z$ on $\Omega = \{a, b, c\}$. I use the uniform probability measure $P(a)=P(b)=P(c)=1/3$ to compute the expectations.
Clearly, $E[E[X|F_1]|F_2] \neq E[E[X|F_2]|F_1]$. So you have your concrete counter-example. Done. Now let's check some other statements.
While true in our particular example, the truthfulness of this statement depends on the choice of the measure (and other things). Had we chosen $P$, s.t. $P(c)=1, P(a)=P(b)=0$, we would have $X \equiv (1,2,3) = (0,0,3)$ (almost everywhere), and all the above expectations would also be a.e. equal to it.
This does not hold, $(\frac{7}{4}, \frac{17}{8}, \frac{17}{8}) \neq (\frac{7}{4}, \frac{5}{2}, \frac{7}{4})$, and illustrates that $Z_{12}=E(E(X|F_1)|F_2)$ does not have to be $F_1$-measurable. Note that $E(Z_{21}|F_2)=Z_{21}$ holds by coincidence.
I could not come up with anything as abstract as the proof you attempted, nor did I find a way to remedy it. But if you need just one simple example, this should suffice.