Let $(\Omega,\mathcal{F},\mathbb{P})$ be a probability space. Let also $A_{n,j}\in\mathcal{F},n\in\mathbb{N}_0,j\in\{1,2,3,...,2^n\}$, be such that for all $n\in\mathbb{N}_0:\cup_{j=1}^{2^n}A_{n,j}=\Omega$ and: $\forall i,j\in\{1,2,3,...,2^n\}i\neq j:A_{n,i}\cap A_{n,j}=\emptyset$ and $A_{n,i}=A_{n+1,2i-1}\cup A_{n+1,2i}$.
Now define: $\mathcal{F}_n=\sigma(\{A_{n,j}:j\in\{1,2,3,...,2^n\}\})$.
i.) Prove that $\mathcal{F}$ is a filtration.
ii.) Define $\mu:\mathcal{F}\rightarrow[0,\infty)$ probability measure on $(\Omega,\mathcal{F})$. Assume that if $\mathbb{P}(A)=0$, for $A\in\mathcal{F}$ then $\mu(A)=0$. Define: $M_n(\omega)=\frac{\mu(A_{n,j})}{\mathbb{P}(A_{n,j})},\omega\in A_{n,j},\mathbb{P}(A_{n,j})\neq 0$ and $M_n(\omega)=0$ if $\mathbb{P}(A_{n,j})=0$.
Prove that for all $n\in\mathbb{N}_0$ and all $j\in\{1,2,3,...,2^n\}$:
$\mathbb{E}(M_{n+1}1_{A_{n,j}})=\mathbb{E}(M_n1_{A{_n,j}})$.
For question i.) we need to show that $\mathcal{F}_n\subset\mathcal{F}_{n+1}\forall n$ and also that all $\mathcal{F}_n$ are $\sigma-$algebras.
I have already shown that $\Omega\in\mathcal{F}_n\forall n$ and that if $E_n\in\mathcal{F}_n$ then also $\cup_{n=1}^{\infty}E_n\in\mathcal{F}_n$. However I have some hard time showing the condition for the complements.
Now for question ii.), first of all if $\mathbb{P}(A_{n,j})=0$ then the equality is obvious. Hence we can assume that $\mathbb{P}(A_{n,j})\neq 0$.
Now we have that: $\mathbb{E}(M_{n+1}1_{A{n,j}})=\int M_{n+1}1_{A_{n,j}}=\int \frac{\mu(A_{n+1,j})}{\mathbb{P}(A_{n+1,j})}1_{A_{n,j}}=\frac{\mathbb{P}(A_{n,j})\mu(A_{n,j})}{\mathbb{P}(A_{n+1,j})}$.
On the other hand, we have that: $\mathbb{E}(M_{n}1_{A{n,j}})=\int M_{n}1_{A_{n,j}}=\int\frac{\mu(A_{n,j})}{\mathbb{P}(A_{n,j}}1_{A_{n,j}}=\mu(A_{n,j})$.
I am pretty sure there is something wrong in what I have done, but can not figure out exactly what. Any help would be appreciated.