Reading some background on the Brocard-Ramanujan equation I found a proof which says the following. For a fixed natural number $A$ which is not a square it is always possible to find a prime $p$ such that
- $p>A$;
- $x^2\equiv A \pmod{p}$ has no solution (that is, $A$ is a quadratic non-residue modulo $p$).
However, the proof does not say anything about how it is possible. I do not find it so evident. Maybe I am missing some very basic fact.
If $A$ is a non-square, let $B=q_1\dots q_l\,$ its non-square part, i.e. write $A=BC$, where $C$ is a square and $B$ has no repeated prime factor. It is enough to find a prime $p>A$ such that $B$ is a non-square modulo $p$. Actually, we'll find one such that $p\equiv 1\bmod 4$.
If $B$ is odd, using the Legendre symbol, we have by the law of quadratic reciprocity law: $$\biggl(\frac Bp\biggr)=\prod_{i=1}^l\Bigl(\frac{q_i}p\Bigr)=\prod_{i=1}^l\Bigl(\frac p{q_i}\Bigr)\bigl(-1\bigr)^{\tfrac{(p-1)(q_i-1)}4}=\prod_{i=1}^l\Bigl(\frac p{q_i}\Bigr)$$ By the Chinese remainder theorem, we can find an $x$ which is not a square modulo $p_1$, is modulo $p_i\ (i>1)$, and such that $x\equiv 1\bmod4$.
Now by Dirichlet's theorem on arithmetic progressions, among the elements $x+4kB=x+ 4kq_1\dots q_l$, which are squares modulo each $q_i$, there are primes $p>A$. For such a $p$, we have $p\equiv 1\mod4$, so that $\biggl(\dfrac Bp\biggr)=-1$.
Therefore in either case, $B$ is not a square modulo $p$.